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Few areas within the IT industry have seen the kind of growth that cloud computing has. As a result, many IT professionals are now seeking cloud specific certifications. Here is an overview of what is currently available to help you figure out which certification may be best for you.

2013 is here and as we look back at 2012, few areas within the IT industry have seen the kind of growth that cloud computing has experienced.

If your company is locked into a specific cloud service vendor then choosing which IT certification to get may be simple. However, because cloud computing comes in many flavors and is still in its infancy, deciding which cloud certification to get is difficult for many IT professionals.

To help you figure out what vendor offerings are out there and where to begin, CIO.com has put together a list of currently available cloud certifications. This list isn’t all-inclusive, simply because the cloud computing market is in a state of transformation. Please add any certification we may have missed to the comments section.

CompTIA Cloud Essentials
The CompTIA Cloud Essentials specialty certification demonstrates that an individual knows what cloud computing means from a business and technical perspective, as well as what is involved in moving to and governing the cloud.

The CompTIA Cloud Essentials exam covers:
Characteristics of cloud services from a business perspective
Business value of cloud computing
Technical perspective/cloud types
Steps to successful adoption
Impact and changes on IT service management
Risks and consequences

The Cloud Essentials exam objectives were originally developed by ITpreneurs in cooperation with the Cloud Credential Council, a membership body dedicated to vendor-neutral training in cloud computing and comprised of companies including IBM, Cisco, EMC, HP and ING.

While it is not required, CompTIA recommends that a candidate have at least six months working in an environment that markets or relies on IT-related services

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EXIN Cloud Computing Foundation
The exam focuses to a limited extent upon Cloud technology. The main focus of the programme is the procurement, implementation and management of Cloud Computing, hence the slogan ‘Get into the Cloud – and stay in control’.

EXIN Cloud Computing Foundation is part of the Certified Integrator program and is one of the prerequisites to attain the title:

EXIN Certified Integrator Secure Cloud Services.

Target group
The exam is suitable for IT managers, business managers, IT professionals and procurement specialists, who want to qualify for a role within the rapidly growing field of Cloud Computing. For organizations and trainers, EXIN Cloud Computing serves as independent certification of their own course or training.

Context
Cloud Computing ties in well with other EXIN examination programmes, such as IT Service Management and Information Security.
EXIN Cloud Computing Foundation was created in close collaboration with industry and trade organizations.

HP ExpertOne
HP ATA – Cloud V1
Click to Chat With an Online Representative
For students pursuing HP ATA certification

This certification training provides you with the skills and knowledge to understand a customer’s business objectives and support end-to-end IT solution design and deployment, including on premises, hosted, and cloud solutions for small- to medium-size businesses.

To prepare for this certification, you will learn industry-standard cloud and virtualization technologies. You will also learn how to support disaster recovery plans, install, configure, and upgrade servers, storage, data, networks, clients, applications, and users in new and existing environments. Achieving this certification validates your ability to optimize, troubleshoot, and administer cloud solutions.
Why earn this certification?

As a student you have access to HP training developed in an academic format. You will gain higher job and earning potential through an industry-recognized certification and a high-quality education that provides practical experience with HP and industry-standard technologies.

The HP Accredited Technical Associate (ATA) certification is for individuals interested in pursuing careers in technology and lays the foundation for success.

HP ASE – Cloud Architect v1
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This certification verifies that you have the ability to specify and architect a spectrum of cloud services based on a converged infrastructure. These include private, public and hybrid cloud environments, and IaaS, PaaS and SaaS platforms. The Cloud Architect training provides you with the ability to navigate through the HP CloudSystem solution offerings and identify, describe, position and specify the right solution based on identified needs. The training also provides an understanding at the level of purpose, function, positioning, and capabilities of HP CloudSystem offerings. The available training will also help you learn the technical consulting skills needed for planning and designing complete cloud solutions.
Why earn this certification?

Businesses are moving rapidly to take advantage of the cloud to speed innovation, accelerate business processes, and reduce time-to-revenue. However, enterprises and service providers seeking to build cloud environments are confronted with fragmented solutions, leading to complexity, security issues, and management costs that organizations are trying to avoid. You can increase your business and professional value by validating your unique breadth of knowledge to plan and design a complete, integrated and open solution based on HP CloudSystem built on a converged infrastructure. You validate The Cloud Architect V1 training and certification provides the skills needed to effectively plan and design the right cloud solutions based for both business and IT needs.

IBM Certified Solution Advisor – Cloud Computing Architecture V2
An IBM Certified Solution Advisor – Cloud Computing Architecture V2 is a person who can clearly explain the benefits and underlying concepts of cloud computing. They can also demonstrate how the IBM Cloud Computing offering helps customers realize these benefits.

Key areas of competency include:
Explain the cloud computing concepts.
Describe how the customer can realize the benefits of cloud computing within their environment.
Identify cloud computing architecture and design principles.
Map customer-s requirements to the IBM Cloud Computing offerings.

Required Prerequisite Skills:
The following qualifications are requirements for success:

Working knowledge of Cloud Computing principles
Working knowledge of implementation of Cloud Computing concepts
Working knowledge of the various types of clouds
Working knowledge of the various types of -as a service- offerings
Working knowledge of various Cloud Computing business models
Working knowledge of key concerns and how they are addressed in Cloud Computing such as security,

Microsoft MCSE – Private Cloud certification

Private Cloud certification
Solutions Expert The globally recognized standard for IT professionals

Prove your expertise in managing and implementing Microsoft private cloud computing technologies. With Windows Server and System Center, you will build your Microsoft private cloud solution to optimize IT service delivery and gain the automation and flexibility you need for your IT infrastructure, now and in the future.
Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012
Administering Windows Server 2012
Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services
Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012
Configuring and Deploying a Private Cloud with System Center 2012
If you’re already certified as a Microsoft Certified IT Professional (MCITP): Enterprise Administrator or MCITP: Server Administrator, you only need to complete steps 4 and 5 above to earn your Private Cloud certification.
This MCSE certification requires you to show continued ability to perform in your chosen solution area by completing a recertification exam every three years.

Oracle Exalogic Elastic Cloud X2-2 Certified Implementation Specialist certification

Exalogic Elastic Cloud X2-2 Essentials

New! Register for OPN Exchange and take this exam for FREE at Oracle OpenWorld 2012.

The Exalogic Elastic Cloud X2-2 Essentials exam is intended for system administrators who have implemented and are managing an Exalogic Elastic Cloud environment in a data center. The exam targets a broad range of topics from fundamentals and initial machine setup to storage and network configuration. In addition to on-the-job training, preparation can include attending Oracle University’s Oracle Exalogic Elastic Cloud Administration course.

The Oracle Exalogic Elastic Cloud Implementation Specialist certification recognizes OPN members as OPN Certified Specialists. This certification differentiates OPN members in the marketplace by providing a competitive edge through proven expertise.

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There’s a whole “new” crop of reconfigured and reclassified Microsoft certification exams, but how much has the focus and the gravitas changed?
Greg Shields

The Microsoft Certified Solutions Expert (MCSE) is back, but does this mark a return to the good old days? Microsoft’s resurrection of the long-treasured MCSE could reignite certification’s glory days of long lines at testing centers and sold-out classrooms. The biggest question is: Do certifications still matter? And will today’s test objectives stand above the issues experienced by the last generation of MCSE-certified IT professionals?

Those questions will be fully answered in time. For now, though, we can peer deeply into the variety of new MCSEs with an eye toward the technologies Microsoft deems important. If you haven’t looked yet, you might be surprised at the focus of their attention.
I say “‘Cloud,’ you say ‘System Center’

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The Microsoft certification overview Web site states the new generation of MCSEs has been reinvented “to maintain their market relevance as the industry shifts to the cloud.” The cloud is in fact a central theme in all of the current literature regarding the new certification program. The previous Microsoft IT professional certifications, the Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist (MCTS) and Microsoft Certified IT Professional (MCITP), are categorized under Microsoft Certifications. The new Microsoft Certified Solutions Associate (MCSA) and MCSE certs are referred to as Microsoft Cloud-built Certifications.

While that distinction might be important to Microsoft, I wonder how it will be percieved by the everyday IT professional. Many don’t yet see themselves as caretakers of a cloud-based datacenter, although many work within virtual environments that fit the definition—more or less.

Dig a bit deeper and you’ll find the term “cloud” has special meaning for Microsoft. Look through the objectives in any new-generation MCSE exam. You’ll likely surmise that for Microsoft, “Cloud-built” does in fact mean “System Center.”

Microsoft Exam 70-415 is an excellent example. This exam is the first of two (the other being 70-416) required to upgrade a new-generation MCSA to an MCSE: Desktop Infrastructure. While you can easily accomplish the majority of objectives atop Windows Server 2012 by itself, a remarkable few require System Center experience.

For example, the 70-415 objective, “Implement Zero Touch deployment,” is a task you can only accomplish with the help of System Center Configuration Manager. Another objective, titled “Implement an updates infrastructure,” requires actions in Configuration Manager and System Center Virtual Machine Manager (VMM). Objectives in 70-416 include references to App-V (“Manage application virtualization environments” and “Design and implement a resilient virtual application delivery infrastructure”), as well as Configuration Manager (“Deploy applications to the desktop” and “Plan and implement application updates”).

The days are gone when a prospective MCSE could learn everything he needed from Windows Server. Getting MCSE-certified these days requires myriad “other” skills that will require additional effort.
MCSA: The new MCSE

It’s worth mentioning that the MCSE prerequisite certification—the MCSA—doesn’t appear to have the same focus on System Center. While System Center experience doesn’t appear necessary for a prospective MCSA test-taker, a casual review of objectives reveals a more mature MCSA. This isn’t your father’s entry-level certification. The objective domains in this generation’s MCSA exams feel eerily similar to those in the last generation’s MCSE.

Obtaining the MCSA requires passing three exams: Installing and Configuring Windows Server 2012 (70-410), Administering Windows Server 2012 (70-411), and Configuring Advanced Windows Server 2012 Services (70-412). Passing these three now requires a broader range of topics that will greatly challenge the last generation’s “paper MCSEs.”

For example, answering the questions in the 70-411 exam (Administering Windows Server 2012) requires knowledge across a wide array of technologies with acronyms such as WDS, WSUS, DCS, DFS, FSRM, ERS, DNS, VPNs, NPS, NAP, SPNs, UGMC, RODCs, GPOs, CSEs and even a little DirectAccess to boot. As a test-taker, if these acronyms mean nothing, you’ve got a long road ahead. Obtaining today’s MCSA might indeed be just as challenging as obtaining the last generation’s MCSE.
MCSE ‘flavors’

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The new MCSE has evolved beyond its original intent, so that realization is actually a good thing. An oft-noted problem of the last MCSE was its binary nature. You either had it, or you didn’t. As a consequence, the process of attainment became less important than the actual attaining. Jane may have taken a more challenging path to her certification, involving elective tests in obtuse and complex technologies. John chose Network Essentials and IIS. At the end of the day, though, both are MCSEs.

The new MCSE program attempts to change that perception by eliminating the previous generation’s electives. Replacing them is a variety of “flavors” of the MCSE. A candidate with server experience can obtain an MCSE: Server Infrastructure by taking one path. Another who focuses on desktops can take another path for the MCSE: Desktop Infrastructure. There are MCSE: SQL Server 2012 and MCSE: Private Cloud certifications also available.

One assumes that each of these new flavors better focuses the proven skills of the certification holder on the topics of interest to that person’s employer or potential employers.
‘A mile wide and an inch deep’

One of these flavors merits special attention due to its focus on essentially everything within the Microsoft wheelhouse—MCSE: Private Cloud. Among the range of new certifications, this one is a bit of an enigma. Its test objectives bring to mind a saying long ago associated with the objectives in the (ISC)2 CISSP exam: “They’re a mile wide and an inch deep.”

Like all flavors of the MCSE, obtaining the MCSE: Private Cloud first requires obtaining an MCSA. The difference here, however, is that that MCSA is in Windows Server 2008. The current MCSE: Private Cloud also notably tests against Windows Server 2008 R2 technologies and not Windows Server 2012. Then, you’ll need to complete two exams. One is 70-247 (Configuring and Deploying a Private Cloud with System Center 2012), and the other is 70-246 (Monitoring and Operating a Private Cloud with System Center 2012).

This MCSE is different in part because its focus is almost entirely on System Center technologies. It even tests against the core hypervisor that sits on Windows Server 2008 R2. To pass 70-247, you’ll need to know Hyper-V. You’ll also need experience in almost the entire System Center suite, including VMM, Data Protection Manager, App Controller, Service Manager, App-V and Operations Manager. Only Configuration Manager appears to be absent from the objectives.

Whereas the 70-247 exam focuses on laying down the building blocks for a private cloud, 70-246 tests on monitoring and operations. A review of its objectives reveals that it tests against the same System Center components in this exam as in the other one (with the exception of Orchestrator, which has been added to one objective domain). Only the tasks you’ll be accomplishing with those System Center components are different. As its name suggests, you won’t be building your private cloud here. You’ll be automating its operations.
Breadth of topics: a challenge for the classroom approach?

The Microsoft certification program has historically aligned its exams with Microsoft Official Academic Courses. That trend doesn’t change with this generation of MCSE. What may change, however, is the efficacy in learning the necessary content via the traditional classroom learning approach.

Bluntly put, there’s a ridiculous amount of content to cover, and the best classroom instructors tend to be those with personal experience in implementing the technologies they teach. That personal experience can be hard to find when the range of testable topics in any exam is so broad across Windows Server and the entire System Center portfolio.

That classroom learning experience might also be hindered by the sheer number of virtual machines (VMs) required to drive all these functions. That count of VMs is exacerbated by an insidious limitation of System Center. Each component must be installed to its own Windows Server instance. Powering them all might require a significant hardware investment for the learning centers that offer the courses. The System Center components are large in number and hungry in hardware requirements. You can’t help but wonder if alternative learning approaches such as prerecorded computer-based training might have an advantage here in best delivering the knowledge transfer.
Re-legitimizing the MCSE

Having said all this, this MCSE is indeed an impressive certification. The breadth of its content can be overwhelming for the typical IT professional just starting out in his career. That same breadth, however, is also this MCSE’s greatest strength. Many last-generation MCSE holders felt betrayed by the diminishing value of their certification effort as scores of minimally experienced individuals lined up with certification papers in hand.

Make no mistake, this MCSE appears to be quite a bit harder to obtain. While that difficulty might not reinvigorate a second explosion in Microsoft IT certification, it does stand to create a smaller and more reliable cadre of experienced and proven IT professionals. That’s the kind of certification legitimacy that ultimately benefits everyone.

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As anyone who’s been to TechEd will attest, the event is not a sprint; it’s a marathon. With hundreds of technical sessions, workshops, labs and vendors, the annual Microsoft event doesn’t lack quantity. But what’s actually worth paying attention to?

Thanks to the timing of the event, the published agenda and the tarot cards found lying around the TechTarget office, we have a few informed guesses regarding what attendees can expect to hear a lot about, and where Microsoft wants the industry conversation to go. Here are the top topics we’ll be watching:

Windows Server 2012
With the recent name change from Windows Server 8, there’s a renewed anticipation for Microsoft’s upcoming server OS – and heightened expectations for all the things the company claims it can do. Server and Tools Business president Satya Nadella will be one of the featured keynote speakers at the show, and he’ll likely hammer on all of the many documented improvements within Server 2012, from enhancements to Hyper-V and PowerShell to the new Resilient File System. There are also 72 technical sessions in the Windows Server track, which should sate folks eager to play with the Release Candidate, available now.

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Windows 8
It’s no secret that Microsoft is betting big on Windows 8, its “reimagined,” “fast and fluid” new client operating system. With the next iteration – dubbed the Release Preview – now available, you can bet it’ll be a major point of emphasis for many speakers, if not for the IT pros who remain skeptical of how the touch-centric interface will translate to the enterprise. The agenda includes technical sessions on Windows 8 deployment, Metro-style app delivery, Windows To Go and more. Developers will have plenty to chew on as well: Visual Studio corporate vice president Jason Zander will be speaking during Monday’s keynote session, and Antoine LeBlond, corporate vice president for Windows Web Services (with a focus on the Windows Store) takes the stage on Tuesday.

Certifications
Sure, IT pros have been able to take certification exams at TechEd every year. But this year adds some intrigue, given the recent changes to Microsoft’s program, including the return of the MCSE and a focus on the cloud. Many are wondering what the changes mean for them, whether they should get recertified and what the value of these things are, anyway. If there is any place to get answers, it’s here.

Device (or user) management
It’s pretty difficult to avoid the topic of consumerization and BYOD programs at any conference these days, and for good reason: Any organization that isn’t dealing with it now will soon need to or risk being beaten over the head by iPad-wielding employees. One of the main ways that Microsoft is addressing the new reality is through improved device management. The revamped Windows Intune, which will purportedly give IT the ability to manage and deliver applications to iOS and Android devices in addition to Windows devices, will be featured in demos and discussions throughout the week (as will System Center Configuration Manager 2012). Expect to hear about Microsoft’s “user-centric” management model a lot, and get explanations as to why Windows RT tablets don’t need to join Active Directory domains.

Cloud
The word “cloud” at a Microsoft conference usually means Azure. The public cloud platform will definitely be a major coverage area at TechEd, given both the timing – there was a recent branding brouhaha, and the company is scheduled to make a significant Azure announcement on June 7 – and the speaker slate (which includes sessions from Azure executives Scott Guthrie and Mark Russinovich, and purportedly something on the new Windows Azure Active Directory). But don’t discount Microsoft’s private cloud push, which includes System Center 2012 and Hyper-V.

System Center 2012
Though Microsoft’s updated systems management suite got plenty of time in the spotlight during the Management Summit in April, IT pros are looking to learn more about how to better monitor and respond to increasingly complex environments. Many of the suite’s most significant products, including Virtual Machine Manager, Operations Manager and Orchestrator, will get dedicated technical sessions, and should be touted as ways to tie together many of the topics mentioned above.

Office
We’ve heard very little about how things are going with Office 365, Microsoft’s answer to Google Apps, and maybe that’s for a reason. But the roadmap should become a little clearer during TechEd, as there are several sessions scheduled that cover the cloud-based productivity suite in depth, including its tie-ins to the Sharepoint collaboration platform (and we may get more details on the new government-specific version). Though there’s nothing listed, we might also hear something about Office 15, which will reportedly be delivered to Windows devices before anything else.

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The Rewards of Microsoft Certification

Microsoft certification is a vast combination of rich and varied spectrum of job and responsibilities. To successfully perform the critical IT function we should earn a specific credential providing objective validity of the ability. One of the most effective ways to reach a long-term career goal, which is even embraced by industry professionals worldwide, is Microsoft certification.

What are the benefits of achieving a Microsoft Certification?

Microsoft Certification enables you to keep your skills relevant, applicable, and competitive. In addition, Microsoft Certification is an industry standard that is recognized worldwide—which helps open doors to potential job opportunities. After you earn your Microsoft Certification, you have access to a multitude of benefits, which can be found on the MCP, MCT, or MOS member site.

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Advancing with long-term career goals Microsoft certification has helped countless IT professionals work more effectively. Individuals have started quoting their valuable experiences during the Microsoft certification course on the websites available. The professionals of Microsoft certification course are very different from the IT counterparts. They not only keep on fighting the challenges of IT field but also have keep themselves a step ahead from them by developing and improving their skills. These certification processes gives one a kind of knowledge to know how to get recognized in any field.

The professionals of Microsoft certification are called at the Microsoft certified professionals or MCP. For the this Microsoft certification they have to pass current Microsoft certification exam which will proved a reliable and valid measure of professional and technical expertise. The validity of a current exam is only considered and not which is retired. Microsoft certification exams reflect how Microsoft products are used in the organization.

Microsoft certification exams are developed from the inputs received from the IT industry professionals. The independent testing organizations administer these exams. There is one very big reason why IT professionals and developers become Microsoft certified professionals is that they all know that their clients, peers, employees and the IT industry shall acknowledge their expertise in working with the Microsoft products and technologies.

There are various steps towards obtaining Microsoft certification. Firstly, one should decide which Microsoft certification is correct for the person. As Microsoft offers a vast variety of professions within the IT industry one should understand which course would be the best for him. One should also get handy with the Microsoft products, which can be done only after working in the IT industry. Experience should be expanded with training by taking advantage of the training resources.

For obtaining Microsoft certification, it is also better to know what to expect in the exam. Previous question papers or taking consultation from those who have appeared or cleared the test is always a good choice. Taking helps from the help guides for Microsoft certification exams is also an added advantage. These help provide guidelines and suggestions to the person appearing for the exam. It is also suggested to take trial tests before appearing for the final exam. The test center should be selected from the worldwide locations. Also certain details like area of study, testing program and region etc should be mentioned.

If your ready for career change and looking for Microsoft MCTS Training, Microsoft MCITP Training or any other Microsoft Certification preparation get the best online training from Certkingdom.com they offer all Microsoft, Cisco, Comptia certification exams training in just one Unlimited Life Time Access Pack, included self study training kits including, Q&A, Study Guides, Testing Engines, Videos, Audio, Preparation Labs for over 2000+ exams, save your money on boot camps, training institutes, It’s also save your traveling and time. All training materials are “Guaranteed” to pass your exams and get you certified on the fist attempt, due to best training they become no1 site 2012.

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I’ve worked with a lot of technologies, but these are where my focus has been in recent years:

* Microsoft SQL Server (particularly high availability and disaster recovery)

* VMWare Virtualization

* Oracle (yes, Oracle, I’ve worked on 7-11)

* Microsoft Clustering

* Red Hat Linux (I can still write shell scripts)

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Oracle and SAP may be back in court on June 18 to begin a retrial of Oracle’s corporate theft lawsuit involving SAP’s former TomorrowNow subsidiary, according to a judge’s order Thursday.

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Oracle was awarded US$1.3 billion in damages from SAP last November as compensation for TomorrowNow’s theft of software and support materials from an Oracle website.

SAP argued the sum was unfairly high, and the court agreed, overturning the jury’s award. Oracle was given a choice of accepting a lower damages amount of $272 million or going into a new trial, and earlier this month it picked the new trial.

The two weeks starting June 18 are the only two weeks free on the judge’s calendar this year, Judge Phyllis Hamilton of the Northern District Court of California said in her scheduling order Thursday. If Oracle and SAP reject that date, they can choose Aug. 13, 2013, or else hope an opening comes up before then.

It will be a busy year for Oracle in the courts. The company is fighting two other big cases that are due to go to trial this year. One was brought by Hewlett-Packard, over Oracle’s decision to drop support for Itanium. The other is Oracle’s suit against Google for alleged patent and copyright violations in Android.

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Microsoft is replacing its Office Academic SKU with a new Office University one that it hopes will help curtail fraudulent use.

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Whenever folks complain about how expensive Microsoft’s Office suite is, someone inevitably points out that the academic version is only about under $100 (usually around $80). And if you’re not a student… no worries. You can use someone else’s ID to buy it.

Microsoft officials know this, too. To help thwart non-students from getting an undeserved  deal on the Academic SKU — which includes Word 2010, Excel 2010, PowerPoint 2010, OneNote 2010, Outlook 2010, Publisher 2010, Access 2010, and Office Web Apps (the free, consumer-focused version of Microsoft’s Webified version of four of its Office apps) — Microsoft is tightening the verification requirements.

On February 1, Microsoft quietly replaced the Office Professional Academic 2010 SKU with a new one called “Microsoft Office University 2010.” The new SKU is for “higher-education” students and faculty only. “Microsoft Office Home and Student 2010 is the recommended product for parents and families with K-12 students,” according to a Microsoft frequently asked questions (FAQ) document. (There’s a new comparable Office for Mac 2011 University SKU, too.)

C-FAX 1070 radio “Tech Talk” host Alan Perry is the one who alerted me to the new SKU, which Microsoft confirmed.

Office University 2010 includes the same point products as the former Academic Professional SKU. It costs $99 and can be installed on two PCs. But it has a new verification process, which works as follows, according to the FAQ:

Office University 2010 does not come with a product key. Your eligibility will be verified online before completing purchase. This product will not work without successful verification as you will not have a product key.

You will be required to verify your eligibility online to use this software.
1.Go to www.office.com/verify.
2.Sign in with your Windows Live ID or create one using any email address.
3.Provide your school email address, sign-in ID, or international student identity card (ISIC).

Once you pass verification, the online site displays the product key.

“The big change is the validation process, as you’ll see on the big warning stickers on the packaging,” said Perry. “Up to now, if you could persuade someone to sell you a copy, (even if you weren’t a student or faculty) it was yours to use. The change appears to be an effort to curtail the large number of ineligible people buying the Academic versions.”

Microsoft plans to offer a similar Office University SKU as part of its next versions of Office for Windows and Mac, Perry said the Softies told him.

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QUESTION 1
You work as a contract developer for National Retailers. You are currently working
on the online order application the National Retailers database developer has
informed you that the product parts and components will be stored in a xml data
type column. National Retailers employees are allowed to request product
information regarding a doll or action figure line by clicking a button on the Web
form. The data will only be retrieved if the employee requests details.
You need to design the appropriate data access technologies and must thus choose
the object that you need to use to store the query results for product parts and
component information.
What should you do?

A. Make use of a DataSet object.

B. Make use of an XmlElement object.

C. Make use of an XmlDocument object.

D. Make use of an XmlDocumentFragment object.

Answer: D

Explanation: An XmlDocumentFragment object can store either a well-formed
XML document or a fragment of a document. This would be consistent with the xml
data type which has the ability to store well-formed documents as well as fragments.
1. The National Retailers management wants to expand business by selling their
exclusive doll line on the company Web site
Incorrect Answers:
A: A DataSet object is used when the method returned a relational data set, akin to the
method that is generated from a SELECT statement.
B: An XmlElement object is used to store the results of a SELECT … FOR XML query,
not the contents of a single value.
C: An XmlDocument object must store well-formed XML Documents. It is thus not
compatible with the xml data type.

QUESTION 2
You work as the database developer for National Retailers. You need to optimize
the indexing strategies and are thus designing the indexes for the Sales.Orders table.
The query in the following exhibit is frequently executed, though it is not the most
commonly executed query.
SELECT Salesrepresentative, SUM(Commission)
FROM Sales.Orders
WHERE Date BETWEEN @ startDate AND @ endDate
GROUP BY Salesrepresentative
ORDER BY Salesrepresentative
You need to use the appropriate statement to create the best index to accommodate
this query.
What should you do?

A. Use the following statement:
CREATE INDEX ix_Commission
ON Sales.Orders(Salesrepresentative, Date, Commission)

B. Use the following statement:
CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX ix_Commission
ON Sales.Orders(Salesrepresentative, Date)

C. Use the following statement:
CREATE INDEX ix_Commission
ON Sales.Orders(Date)
INCLUDE (Salesrepresentative);

D. Use the following statement:
CREATE INDEX ix_Commission
ON Sales.Orders(Date, Salesrepresentative)
INCLUDE (Commission);

Answer: D

Explanation: The Date column is used to select the records and the
Salesrepresentative column is used to group and order the records. This means that
both these columns have to be key columns. The Date column is used in a
BETWEEN comparison, thus it should also be the first in the query. Furthermore,
it has higher selectivity than the Salesrepresentative column.
1. Sales Representatives should also be allowed to check the current commissions due to them.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The column used for equality or BETWEEN comparisons should be listed first. This
must then be followed by the most selective column, then the rest of the predicate
columns in order of decreasing selectivity. And, although it is possible that you can
create an index by using a computed column as the key column, it is recommended that
key columns be kept as narrow as possible. This means that making use of an included
column for Commission is a better option.
B: A Clustered index should have high selectivity. The Salesrepresentative column does
not have high selectivity. This means that this clustered index will not be appropriate for
any other queries done against the table like retrieving order information for instance. A
table can only have one unique index.
C: The Salesrepresentative column is used in the GROUP BY clause. Thus it would be
better suited as the key column rather than an included column. Furthermore, this is not a
covering index as it does not include Commission as an included column.

QUESTION 3
You work as the database developer for National Retailers. While busy designing
queries for the retrieval of data from XML sources, you are writing a script that
will generate an XML file to be imported into the collections application. This
application assumed XML data includes both elements and attributes.
You need to make a choice of the most appropriate type of Transact-SQL statement
to use to retrieve the data from the database.
What should you do?

A. Make use of the OPENXML Transact-SQL statement.

B. Make use of the sp_xml_preparedocument stored procedure.

C. Make use of the SELECT … FOR XML AUTO Transact-SQL statement.

D. Make use of the SELECT … FOR XML PATH Transact-SQL statement.

Answer: D

Explanation: The FOR XML PATH clause of the SELECT
statement will allow you to use XPath to define the structure for the XML data that
is returned. This structure can include both elements and attributes.
1. The Chicago office handles debt collection. All customers with an outstanding balance
over 60 days are also sent to the Chicago office. The accounting department makes use of
a collections application that imports XML data.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The OPENXML statement is used to insert XML data into relational tables. Not to
retrieve a resultant set formatted as XML from relational tables.
B: The sp_xml_preparedocument system stored procedure is used prior to calling OPENXML.
C: The FOR XML AUTO clause of the SELECT statement will generate a result set of
nested elements and as such do not make allowance for a mix of elements and attributes.

QUESTION 4
You are busy designing the database query strategy for National Retailers that will
retrieve the result set used to report on monthly sales trends. To this end you are
designing the stored procedure. This stored procedure will be used by an
application that makes use of Microsoft Visual C# .NET.
Of the requirements that you need to keep in mind is that the analysts need the
ability to retrieve a result set with approximately 100 records and scroll through
them to gather information. These analysts will need the ability to locate records
based on either factory or product I
D. They do NOT update any data. You thus
need to design the most appropriate cursor strategy for National Retailers.
What should you do?

A. Create a server-side static cursor.

B. Create a server-side dynamic cursor.

C. Create a client-side forward-only cursor.

D. Use a default result set and do not create a cursor.

Answer: D

Explanation: The Default Result Set caches all records in the result set to the client.
This will thus reduce round trips across the network to one and prevent data from
being stored in the tempdb.
1. Regularly at the end of each month, reports are generated manually and e-mailed to the
Chicago office. Monthly sales and invoice aging information is included in these reports.
Incorrect Answers:
A: If you create a Server-side static cursor it will consume server resources and require a
round-trip across the network each time the client fetches data. Furthermore the cursor
will then be stored in tempdb.
B: A Server-side dynamic cursor does require a round-trip across the network every time
a client fetches data.
C: Creating a Client-side forward-only cursor will not allow analysts to scroll through
the data the way that they require to. These cursors only support the ability to fetch the
next record and not to move to a specific record.

QUESTION 5
You work as the database developer for National Retailers. You are currently
designing the code that will retrieve the product information for the online order
application. To this end you need to determine the appropriate type of object that
you should create to return to the Web application. The Web application will
require that information such as product name, product description, and product
price information be returned in response to a search request.
What should you do?

A. Use a Transact-SQL stored procedure.

B. Use an extended stored procedure.

C. Use a table-valued user-defined function.

D. Use a Common Language Runtime (CLR) user-defined function.

Answer: A

Explanation: The online application accesses data via a Native XML Web service.
This means that you are limited to using an object that can be exposed as a Web
method. A Transact-SQL stored procedure can return the required information and
can be exposed as a Web method.
1. The National Retailers management wants to expand business by selling their
exclusive doll line on the company Web site.
2. The future online Sales application will be outsourced. NRCH-DB02 will host a
database to support the e-commerce application. The e-commerce application will make
use of Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) to retrieve product information and submit
orders.
Incorrect Answers:
B: An Extended stored procedure cannot be exposed as a Web method.
C: A Table-valued user-defined function cannot be exposed as a Web method.
D: A CLR user-defined function is not required because the data can be retrieved using
Transact-SQL.

QUESTION 6
You are designing the error-handling routines for National Retailers. You are
creating a function that will be used to check the audit trail for the products. This
function must raise a custom error in the event of the audit trail not being
verifiable. Do bear in mind that the code to check the audit trail requires a query
and a cursor.
What should you do?

A. Use the following error-handing method:
– Perform query and open the cursor
– Run code that iterates through the cursor and checks the audit trail
IF @@ERROR
RAISERROR @@ERROR

B. Use the following error-handing method:
BEGIN TRY
– Perform query and open the cursor
– Run code that iterates through the cursor and checks the audit trail
END TRY
BEGIN CATCH
RAISERROR (@myCustomError, 15)
END CATCH

C. Use the following error-handing method:
–Perform query and open the cursor
–Fetch the first row
WHILE /*not the last row*/
IF /*Code that checks the audit trail*/
–Fetch the next row
ELSE
SET @@ERROR = @myCustomError
END WHILE

D. Use the following error-handing method:
–Perform query and open the cursor
–Fetch the first row
WHILE /*not the last row*/
IF /*Code that checks the audit trail*/
– Fetch the next row
ELSE
RAISERROR (@myCustomError, 15)
END WHILE

Answer: D

Explanation: You need to pass the error message back to the application via an IF
ELSE statement to check the values in a row, then calling RAISERROR in the event
of the values being invalid. The RAISERROR function will allow you to send an
error message up the calling chain.
1. Industry regulations require an audit trail for all components and parts that go into a
doll or action figure. The audit trail must be able to use the UPC number on the package
to trace all the components and parts, who supplied the components and parts, and what
date the components and parts were shipped. Components and parts information must be
entered at the time the product line is created and cannot be altered after the quality
inspection. Attempts to modify components and parts information after the inspection
time must be logged.
2. Only product lines with an intact audit trail can be shipped. If an audit trail is not
available, the product line must be destroyed. The product line application includes a
verification routine that checks a specific product line’s audit trail. The application makes
use of structured error handling to react to a product line that must be destroyed.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The requirements will not be met if you use @@ERROR after iterating through the
cursor. The @@ERROR global variable contains the error number generated by the last
statement. Thus if will only include an error number if the last statement to process the
cursor is responsible for the error.
B: Using a TRY … CATCH block within a function is not possible.
C: @@ERROR is a global variable that is automatically set by SQL Server every time a
statement executes. Thus you cannot set @@ERROR.

QUESTION 7
You are designing the error-handling routines for the National Retailers Web
application. In the event of a customer failing to enter valid payment information,
you need to send a custom error to the calling application. Furthermore, this error
message has to be localized to the user’s language. The Web application will pass the
language when it opens a connection to the database server. You thus need to decide
which would be the most appropriate way to support error messages in multiple
languages.
What should you do?

A. A CASE statement should be added to the CATCH block.
Then call RAISERROR with a different error message for each language.

B. A different error number should be used for each language version.
Then a CASE statement should be added to the trigger and call RAISERROR with
the language-specific error.

C. Add a message for each language using sp_addmessage.
A different error number should be used for each language version.
Raise the error in the @@ERROR global variable.

D. Add a message for each language using sp_addmessage.
The same error number should be used for each language version.
Call RAISERROR from the trigger.

Answer: D

Explanation: The same error numbers should be used when adding an error
message for each language. This will allow SQL Server to match the session
language to the error message language when you call RAISERROR. The
sp_addmessage stored procedure is used to add an error message.
1. The National Retailers management wants to expand business by selling their
exclusive doll line on the company Web site.
2. The future online Sales application will be outsourced. NRCH-DB02 will host a
database to support the e-commerce application. The e-commerce application will make
use of Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) to retrieve product information and submit
orders.
Incorrect Answers:
A: A CASE statement should not be added to the CATCH block and then call
RAISERROR with a different error message for each language. This will make
maintenance quite difficult since you will then be required to modify the code that calls
RAISERROR if a message changes or you need to add a language.
B: There is no need to use a different error number for each different language version
and then add a CASE statement to the trigger. This option will work, though it will be
difficult to maintain since the trigger will then have to be modified each time a language
is added. It will also require more programming effort instead of allowing SQL Server to
choose the right language for the error message.
C: If you raise the error in @@ERROR, then the error associated with the last statement
will be raised and not the custom error message. Also, there is no need to define a
different error number for each language version.

QUESTION 8
You are designing the error-handling routines for National Retailers. You thus need
to design the code that will validate the audit trail for a product batch.
Users that do not enjoy membership of the sysadmin role will run the
fn_ValidateBatch function. You need to use the appropriate statements to ensure
that in the event of an invalid audit trail, an error is raised to the calling application
and an event is written to the application log.
What should you do?

A. Use the following statements:
sp_addmessage (@msgnum=50888, @severity=15, @msgtext=”Batch” + @b “cannot be
validated.”)
and
RAISERROR(50888, @batchnum, WITH LOG)

B. Use the following statements:
sp_addmessage (@msgnum=50888, @severity=16, @msgtext=”Batch %b cannot be
validated.”)
and
RAISERROR (50888, WITH SETERR, @batchnum)

C. Use the following statements:
sp_addmessage (@msgnum=50888, @severity=16, @msgtext=”Batch %b cannot be
validated.”)
and
RAISERROR (50888, %batchnum)

D. Use the following statements:
sp_addmessage (@msgnum=50888, @severity=16, @msgtext=”Batch %b cannot be
validated.”)
and
RAISERROR(50888, @batchnum, WITH LOG)

E. Use the following statements:
sp_addmessage (@msgnum=50888, @severity=21, @msgtext=”Batch %b cannot be
validated.”)
and
RAISERROR(50888, @batchnum, WITH LOG)

Answer: D

Explanation: By specifying the 16 severity level, you ensure that the users who do
not belong to the sysadmin role have the ability to raise the error. Also this option
displays the correct syntax for using arguments in a message text string. By default,
only messages with a severity level of over 19 are logged to the application log. This
can be overridden by specifying WITH LOG when calling RAISERROR.
1. Industry regulations require an audit trail for all components and parts that go into a
doll or action figure. The audit trail must be able to use the UPC number on the package
to trace all the components and parts, who supplied the components and parts, and what
date the components and parts were shipped. Components and parts information must be
entered at the time the product line is created and cannot be altered after the quality
inspection. Attempts to modify components and parts information after the inspection
time must be logged.
Incorrect Answers:
A: This option would be correct except for the severity level of 15. By default, only
messages with a severity level of over 19 are logged to the application log. This option
does not offer any overriding probabilities to have the error logged to the application log.
B: This option is only partly correct. But you should not raise the error by specifying
SETERR. This will result in @ERROR and ERROR_NUMBER to be set to 50000. You
do not make use of a concatenated string to use an argument in the message text.
C: The RAISERROR (50888, $batchnum) is the incorrect syntax. A local variable starts
with an @ and not a %. Also this option will not cause the application to be logged to the
application log.
E: You should not specify a severity of 21. Messages with this severity level can only be
raised by members of the sysadminrole.

QUESTION 9
You work as the database developer for National Retailers. You are currently
designing the indexes that will be used for the OnlineSales.Customers table. The
following exhibit illustrates the most common query that will be used.
SELECT FirstName, LastName, Address, City, State, Zip
FROM OnlineSales.Customers
WHERE CustomerID = @emailAddress
You thus need to select the best statement that should be used to create this index
that will accommodate this query.
What should you do?

A. Use the following statement:
CREATE INDEX ix_custInfo
ON OnlineSales.Customer(CustomerID)
INCLUDE (FirstName, LastName, Address, City, State, Zip);

B. Use the following statement:
CREATE INDEX ix_custInfo
ON OnlineSales.Customer(LastName, FirstName)
INCLUDE Address, City, State, Zip;

C. Use the following statement:
CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX ix_custInfo
ON OnlineSales.Customer(CustomerID, FirstName, LastName, Address, City, State,
Zip);

D. Use the following statement:
CREATE CLUSTERED INDEX ix_custInfo
ON OnlineSales.Customer(CustomerID)
INCLUDE (LastName, Address, FirstName, City, Zip, State);

Answer: A

Explanation: Making use of this statement will create an index with a small unique
key that covers the entire query. For optimal performance a small key size that
includes the columns used in the
WHERE clause and other predicates or in joins are recommended. In this scenario
the only required key column would be the CustomerID column. Then you can
include the rest of the columns as non-key columns. This means that you need to
create the index as a non-clustered index because non-key included columns are not
supported for clustered indexes.
1. The National Retailers management wants to expand business by selling their
exclusive doll line on the company Web site.
Incorrect Answers:
B: This index would not be used for the query because the CustomerID column is not
listed as a key column.
C: This statement, if created will result in an index with 344 bytes in the key column.
Though it is possible, it is not optimal since it is better to create an index with a smaller
key column and included columns.
D: This is incorrect because you cannot make use of included columns in a clustered
index.

QUESTION 10
National Retailers require a database that will support the e-commerce application.
You need to find a way to provide the e-commerce application with information
about the existing inventory. The database must determine the nearest factory that
has the product ordered in stock and send the order to that specific factory to have
it fulfilled.
You thus need to determine how the inventory information should be made
available to the e-commerce application while providing the best possible
performance when placing the order.
What should you do?

A. Query the database server at each factory using OPENROWSET from a stored
procedure run on NRCH-DB02.

B. At each factory implement an HTTP endpoint on the database server and expose a
Web method that checks inventory.

C. Replicate the data from the database servers at the different factories to the
NRCH-DB02 server using merge replication.

D. Use a linked server for the database server at each factory at NRCH-DB02.

Answer: C

Explanation: Using merge replication to replicate all data from the factories to
NRCH-DB02 will make the data available locally and improve query performance when
an order is placed. This is the best type of replication to use in this case because there
could be conflicts by orders placed over the Web and order places by the Sales
representatives at each factory. Also in a case where the different sites/factories are not
well-connected making use of merge replication makes sense. And in this case the
factories are connected to the Chicago office by demand-dial links.
1. The National Retailers management wants to expand business by selling their
exclusive doll line on the company Web site.
2. The future online Sales application will be outsourced. NRCH-DB02 will host a
database to support the e-commerce application. The e-commerce application will make
use of Simple Object Access Protocol (SOAP) to retrieve product information and submit
orders.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Making use of OPENROWSET to query each database server at each factory from a
stored procedure on NRCH-DB02 will result in one or more remote queries to be sent
across the network for each product ordered.
B: Making use of an HTTP endpoint will result in more overhead than is required. There
is already a demand-dial connection between the Chicago office and the different
factories. Thus there is no firewall that restricts incoming protocol to only HTTP. Making
use of a SOAP request will result in even more overhead than a remote query.
D: Making use of a linked server for the database server at each factory and performing a
remote query is not the best solution because each product that is ordered will cause at
least one, and possible more, remote queries to be sent across the network.

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QUESTION 1
You work as DBA at Certkingdom.com. You administer two Windows Server 2003
computers named Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B. You install SQL Server 2005 on both
Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B to host a new company database. Certkingdom A hosts a
read-write copy of the company database in which all changes are made. Certkingdom B
subscribes to a publication on Certkingdom A and is only used for reporting. A Windows
domain administrator provides you with a domain user account named SQLSRV to use as
the security context for the SQL Server services. A password policy of 42 days exists in
the Default Domain Group Policy object (GPO). You install the database on Certkingdom A
and Certkingdom B and configure replication. Everything works fine for six weeks, but then
all SQL Server services fail. You need to correct the problem. What should you do?

A. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the Log on as service right to the
SQLSRV domain user account.
B. Configure the SQLSRV domain user account with a new strong password. Configure
the new password in the properties of each SQL Server service that failed.
C. Create a local user account on Certkingdom A named Certkingdom A and a local user account
on Certkingdom B named Certkingdom B. Configure Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B to run under the
context of the appropriate local user account.
D. Ask the Windows domain administrator to grant the SQLSRV domain user account
membership in the Domain Admins group.

Answer: B

Explanation:
The Default Domain Group Policy object requires that passwords are
changed every 42 days. In order to correct this problem you have to change the
password in the Active Directory AND configure the new password on both you
SQL Servers to the newly changed password.

QUESTION 2
You are a database administrator of two SQL Server 2005 computers named Certkingdom A
and Certkingdom B. You have a Microsoft .NET application that has been modified so that it
now accesses a database on Certkingdom B in addition to Certkingdom A. You do not want the
user application to connect directly to Certkingdom B. You need to enable the data retrieval
from Certkingdom B while maintaining the ability to assign different permissions to different
users who use the .NET application. What should you do?

A. Change the .NET application to define a new server connection to Certkingdom B.
B. Configure a linked server on Certkingdom A to point to Certkingdom B.
C. Change the stored procedures called by the .NET application to include the
OPENXML command.
D. Configure a linked server on Certkingdom B to point to Certkingdom A.

Answer: B

Explanation:
SQL Server lets you access external data sources from your local
Transact-SQL code. You need to define a linked server for each external data
source you want to access and then configure the security context under which your
distributed queries will run. After you create a linked server, you can use the
Transact-SQL OPENQUERY function to execute your distributed queries.

QUESTION 3
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. Your company uses a different
company’s application that is based on SQL Server 2005 Standard Edition. The
application executes a query that uses an index query hint. The index query hint is not
suitable for your environment, but you cannot modify the query. You need to force the
application to use a different query execution plan. What should you do?

A. Create a plan guide for the query.
B. Clear the procedure cache.
C. Create a new covering index on the columns that the query uses.
D. Update the statistics for all of the indexes that the query uses.

Answer: A
Over the past few years, Microsoft SQL Server has increased its
presence in the industry and has reduced its TCO. This reduced TCO is a direct
result, primarily, of the numerous self-tuning mechanisms built into Microsoft(r)
SQL Server. These mechanisms automatically perform tasks that would otherwise
have to be performed by experienced database administrators. One such
mechanism is the cost-based optimizer (CBO) that is used to dynamically generate
query execution plans. The CBO probes several system-wide resource states and
employs many complex, heuristical algorithms to generate the best possible plan for
a given query and the underlying table and index structures. This mechanism works
well for the vast majority of user queries, but there are times when experienced
users need to force a particular query plan, based on some prior knowledge or
insights into future uses.

QUESTION 4
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. Your SQL Server 2005 computer
contains one user database that holds sales transaction information. Users report that the
queries and stored procedures that they use every day are taking progressively longer to
execute. You also notice that the amount of free disk space on the SQL Server computer
is decreasing. You need to create a maintenance plan to correct the performance and
storage problems. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer
presents a complete solution. Choose two.)

A. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Check Database Integrity option.
B. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Reorganize Index option.
C. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Shrink Database option.
D. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Clean Up History option.
E. In the SQL Server Maintenance Plan Wizard, use the Execute SQL Server Agent Job
option.

Answer: B,C

Explanation:
When you indexes are not heavily fragmented you can reorganize
indexes, which uses few system resources and runs automatically online. In SQL
Server 2005, certain operations such as large delete operations or -one-time data
loads might leave database files larger than they need to be. SQL Server 2005
enables a DBA to shrink each file within a database to remove unused pages and
regain disk space.

QUESTION 5
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. You are responsible for a SQL
Server 2005 database that has several indexes. You need to write a stored procedure that
checks the indexes for fragmentation. Which Transact-SQL statement should you use?

A. DBCC INDEXDEFRAG
B. SELECT * FROM sys.dm_db_index_physical_stats
C. SELECT * FROM sys.indexes
D. DBCC DBREINDEX

Answer: B

Explanation:
The index_physical_stats function takes five parameters: database_id,
object_id, index_id, partition_id, and mode. This function returns row size and
fragmentation information.

QUESTION 6
You work as DBA at Certkingdom.com. You administer two SQL Server 2005 computers
named Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B. Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B contain a copy of a
database named Sales. The database is replicated between Certkingdom A and Certkingdom B by
using transactional replication. A full backup of each database is performed every night.
Transaction log backups are performed every hour. Replication latency is typically less
than two minutes. One afternoon, the Sales database on Certkingdom A becomes corrupted.
You are unable to repair the database. The Sales database on Certkingdom B is unaffected.
You need to return the Sales database on Certkingdom A to normal operation as quickly as
possible. You must ensure a minimum loss of data and minimal impact to users of either
server. What should you do?

A. Perform a full database backup on Certkingdom B. Restore the backup to Certkingdom A.
B. Restore the most recent full database backup and all transaction logs made since the
full backup was made.
C. Restore only the most recent transaction log backup.
D. Detach the Sales database on Certkingdom B. Copy the database file to Certkingdom A, and
attach the database on both servers.

Answer: A

Explanation:
Detaching the database will not apply to the minimal impact on users
as it will be offline during copy. Restoring only the latest transaction log will not
give you a working database and restoring last full backup and all transaction logs
after that will not apply to the restore normal operations as quickly as possible part
of the requirements.

QUESTION 7
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. The company runs a popular
database-driven Web site against a SQL Server 2005 computer named Certkingdom B. You
need to ensure a quick response time and appropriate audit trail in the event that
Certkingdom B experiences excessive traffic due to denial-of-service (DoS) attacks. Which
two actions should you perform? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
Choose two.)

A. Configure the new performance alert to start a SQL Server Profiler trace.
B. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Current Bandwidth counter.
C. Configure the new performance alert to start a Network Monitor capture.
D. Create a new performance alert to monitor the Bytes Total/sec counter.

Answer: C,D

Explanation:
Using alerts, System Monitor tracks specific events and notifies you of
these events as requested. An alert log can monitor the current performance of
selected counters and instances for objects in SQL Server. When a counter exceeds
a given value, the log records the date and time of the event. An event can also
generate a network alert. Characteristic for a typical DoS attack is a large number
of Bytes/sec. Characteristic for a DDoS attack is also a large number of Bytes/sec
but also a large number of connections made from a large number of hosts.

QUESTION 8
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. One of the databases on a SQL
Server 2005 computer contains a stored procedure. Users run this stored procedure to
import data into a table. The stored procedure needs to use the TRUNCATE TABLE
command before importing new data into the table. However, the users who run the
stored procedure do not have permission to truncate the table. You need to provide a way
for the stored procedure to truncate the table before it imports new data. What should you
do?

A. Configure the stored procedure to use the EXECUTE AS command.
B. Configure the stored procedure to be owned by the same database user as the table.
C. Assign the users DELETE permission in the table.
D. Add the users to the db_datawriter fixed database role.

Answer: A

Explanation:
In SQL Server 2005 you can implicitly define the execution context of
the following user-defined modules: functions (except inline table-valued functions),
procedures, queues, and triggers. By specifying the context in which the module is
executed, you can control which user account the SQL Server 2005 Database Engine
uses to validate permissions on objects that are referenced by the module. This
provides additional flexibility and control in managing permissions across the object
chain that exists between user-defined modules and the objects referenced by those
modules. Permissions must be granted to users only on the module itself, without
having to grant them explicit permissions on the referenced objects. Only the user
that the module is running as must have permissions on the objects accessed by the
module.
Syntax:
Functions (except inline table-valued functions), Stored Procedures, and DML Triggers
{ EXEC | EXECUTE } AS { CALLER | SELF | OWNER | ‘user_name’ }

QUESTION 9
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. You have separate SQL Server 2005
development and production environments. You use the Business Intelligence
Development Studio to create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package in your
development environment. Then, you use the SSIS package to import data into your
development environment from one of your company’s trading partners. You need to
deploy the SSIS package to your production environment. Your production environment
uses different table names than your development environment. What should you do?

A. Save the SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to a file. Copy the file to the
production server. Configure the SSIS package on the production server to use the new
file.
B. Back up the master database and restore it to the production server. Rename the
appropriate tables inside the master database.
C. Create a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package configuration. Build a
deployment utility. Copy the deployment folder for your SSIS project to your production
server. Execute the manifest file.
D. Back up the msdb database and restore it to the production server. Rename the
appropriate tables inside the msdb database.

Answer: C

Explanation:
You have to use a SSIS package to accomplish this but you can not use
the package built for your development environment as the table names differ.

QUESTION 10
You are a database administrator for Certkingdom.com. You notice that one of the data files
on a SQL Server 2005 computer is corrupted. You need to restore the database from the
most recent set of backups. You want to perform this task as quickly as possible, with a
minimum loss of data. What should you do first?

A. Restore the most recent transaction log backup.
B. Restore the most recent full database backup.
C. Perform a full database backup.
D. Perform a transaction log backup.

Answer: D

Explanation:
In order to restore from the most recent set of backups, you have to
first ensure that you can restore all transactions that have occurred between the
time of the backup and the time when the database went corrupt. In order to
accomplish this you should backup the transaction log.

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Best Microsoft MCTS Certification, Microsoft MCITP Training at certkingdom.com

QUESTION 1:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. The Certkingdom.com network contains a
print server named Certkingdom -PR01 that has a built-in network interface.
A Certkingdom.com user named Andy Reid is a member of the Research and
Development department. Andy Reid complains that he cannot print to a print
device attached to Certkingdom -PR01.
You have received instruction to ensure that Andy Reid can print to the print
device. First you verify that the IP address for Certkingdom -PR01 is correct and that
the latest drivers for the print device are installed. You now want to verify that the
print jobs are being sent to the correct MAC address for Certkingdom -PR01.
What should do?

A. On Certkingdom -PR01, run the net session command.
B. On Certkingdom -PR01, run the netstat command.
C. On Certkingdom -PR01, run the netsh command.
D. On Certkingdom -PR01, run the netcap command.

Answer: D

Explaination: Netstcap.exe is a command line tool that could be used to capture the
network traffic. A filter can be created to be used during the capture to determine the
MAC address the print jobs are being sent to. The Network Monitor Capture Utility (
Netcap.exe) can be used to capture network traffic in Network Monitor. Netcap provides
capture abilities only from a command prompt; to open the resulting capture (.cap) files,
you must use the full Network Monitor interface. Netcap is installed when you install the
Support tools that are on the Windows XP CD-ROM. Netcap provides capture abilities
that are similar to the version of Network Monitor that is included with the Windows
Server products; however, you must use Netcap at a command prompt. Netcap installs
the Network Monitor driver and binds it to all adapters when you first run the Netcap command.
Incorrect Options:
A: The net session command can be used to view the computer names and user names of
users on a server, to see if users have files open, and to see how long each user’s session
has been idle. Net session manages server computer connections – used without
parameters, net session displays information about all sessions with the local computer.
B: The netstat command is not a utility to use when troubleshooting NetBIOS names, but
is used to display TCP/IP and port information.
C: The Network Shell utility (Netsh.exe) can perform a wide range of system
configuration tasks. You can use commands in the Netsh Interface IP context to
configure the TCP/IP protocol (including addresses, default gateways, DNS servers, and
WINS servers) and to display configuration and statistical information.
Reference:
Microsoft Knowledge Base: 306794: How to Install the Support Tools from the Windows
XP CD-ROM Network Monitor is provided with Windows Server products and
Microsoft Systems Management Server (SMS). Microsoft Corporation, 2004
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, Chad Todd & Laura Hunter,
MCSA/MCSE: Exam 70-291: Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Windows
Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training System, pp. 686, 854-856,
926

QUESTION 2:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of two subnets. All servers on the Certkingdom.com network run
Windows Server 2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional. All
servers are located in a central data center that uses a single IP subnet and all client
computers are located in one subnet.
The data center contains two routers named Certkingdom -SR01 and
Certkingdom -SR02, two domain controllers named Certkingdom -DC01 and
Certkingdom -DC02, and two file servers named Certkingdom -SR03 and
Certkingdom -SR04. The IP addresses of these servers are indicated in the table
below.

You have received instruction from the CIO to install a new database server in the
data center. You install Windows Server 2003 on a new server computer named
Certkingdom -DB01 and hand it over to a database administrator named Dean
Austin. Dean Austin installs Microsoft SQL Server 2005 and makes some changes to
the TCP/IP settings on Certkingdom -DB01 as shown in the following table.

Later, Dean Austin complains that Certkingdom -DB01 cannot communicate with the
other servers in the data center. All other servers in the data center can
communicate with the other servers as well as the client computers. You log on to
Certkingdom -DB01 and attempt to ping Certkingdom -DC01 but you receive the
following error message: “Destination host unreachable”.
What should you do to ensure that Certkingdom -DB01 can communicate with the
other computers in the Certkingdom.com network?

A. Configure Certkingdom -DB01 with a default gateway of 10.10.1.1.
B. Configure Certkingdom -DB01 with a subnet mask of 255.255.0.0.
C. Configure Certkingdom -DB01 with an IP address of 10.10.10.3.
D. Configure Certkingdom -DB01 with an IP address of 10.10.11.3.

Answer: B

Explaination: Large networks are subdivided to create smaller subnetworks to reduce
overall network traffic by keeping local traffic on the local subnet and sending all
nonlocal traffic to the router. In order to create a subnetwork, we need to have a system
for addressing that allows us to use the network ID and host ID within the class-based
system. This is accomplished through the use of a subnet mask. To determine the
appropriate custom subnet mask (typically referred to simply as subnet mask) for a
network, you must first:
1. Determine the number of host bits to be used for subnetting.
2. Determine the new subnetted network IDs.
3. Determine the IP addresses for each new subnet.
4. Determine the appropriate subnet mask.
Incorrect Answers:
A: You need to assign the correct subnet mask to ensure connectivity.
C, D: The problem in this scenario is not a faulty IP address. It is the appropriate subnet
mask that has to be determined to enable connectivity.
Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, Chad Todd and Laura Hunter,
MCSA/MCSE: Exam 70-291: Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Windows
Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training System, p. 57

QUESTION 3:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of two subnets named Subnet A and Subnet B. Subnet A and
Subnet B are connected by a router. All computers on the Certkingdom.com network
are configured with static IP addresses. All network servers run Windows Server
2003 and all client computers run Windows XP Professional.
Certkingdom.com hires a new Sales manager named Amy Wilson. You install a new
client computer named Certkingdom -WS291 for Amy Wilson. You then add
Certkingdom -WS291 to Subnet A. The relevant portion of the network is configured
as shown in the exhibit.

However, Amy Wilson complains that Certkingdom -WS291 cannot communicate
with other hosts on the network.
What should you do to ensure that Certkingdom -WS291 can communicate with all
local and remote computers on the Certkingdom.com network?

A. Configure Certkingdom -WS291 with a default gateway of 192.168.28.84.
B. Configure Certkingdom -WS291 with a default gateway of 192.168.2.1.
C. Configure Certkingdom -WS291 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.128.
D. Configure Certkingdom -WS291 with a subnet mask of 255.255.255.192.

Answer: C

Explaination: It is evident from the exhibit that the file server and
Certkingdom -WS291 have a different subnet mask. This is the reason why they
cannot communicate with each other. You must therefore change the subnet mask
of Certkingdom -WS291 to 255.255.255.128.
Incorrect Answers:
A, B: The problem is not the gateway IP address that is faulty, but rather the subnet
mask.
D: This option suggests the correct object that has to be changed, but it gives the wrong
subnet mask.
Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, Chad Todd and Laura Hunter,
MCSA/MCSE: Exam 70-291: Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Windows
Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training System, p. 57

QUESTION 4:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com
Certkingdom.com has its headquarters in Chicago and branch offices in Dallas and
Miami. All servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all
client computers run Windows XP Professional. You work in the Miami branch
office.
The network at the Miami branch office consists of 25 different subnets, each with a
maximum of six computers. The network administrator at headquarters has
allocated the 192.168.3.0/24 network address to the Miami branch office.
You install a new server named Certkingdom -SR21 in the Miami branch office. You
need to configure the Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) properties for Certkingdom -SR21.
You configure Certkingdom -SR21 with an IP address of 192.168.3.44. What subnet
mask should you use?

A. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.0.
B. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.128.
C. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.192.
D. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.240.
E. A subnet mask of 255.255.255.248.

Answer: E

Explaination: The network address is: 192.168.2.0/24, which means
11111111.11111111.11111111.0 in binary.
Therefore, you can use the last octet to configure the 30 subnets and 6 hosts in each
subnet
You need only six host PCs. When you convert to binary, it is: 00000111. As a result,
you use 3 bits.
This leaves 5 bits for the subnets 11111000 converted to decimal:
128+64+32+16+8=248, therefore the subnet mask will be: 255.255.255.248.
Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, Chad Todd and Laura Hunter,
MCSA/MCSE: Exam 70-291: Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Windows
Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training System, p.57

QUESTION 5:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com
Certkingdom.com has its headquarters in Chicago and a branch office in Dallas. All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. You work in the Dallas branch office.
The network at the Dallas branch office consists of a single subnet that contains 150
client computers and 12 servers. The network administrator at headquarters has
allocated the 10.10.0.0/16 network address to the Dallas branch office.
You have received instruction from your manager to place all servers at the Dallas
branch office into a separate subnet that uses the 192.168.10 public addressing
scheme. Your manager asks you to make allowance for a maximum of 30 servers in
the new subnet.
Which subnet mask should you use for the new subnet?

A. 255.255.255.224
B. 255.255.255.240
C. 255.255.255.248
D. 255.255.255.252
E. 255.255.255.254

Answer: A

Explaination: A 255.255.255.224 subnet mask gives five host address bits, so the
maximum number of host addresses is 2 ^ 5 – 2 = 30 host addresses. Thus
255.255.255.224 is the only subnet mask that will allow for sufficient IP addresses in
case of further growth, whilst still conserving as many current addresses as possible.
Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, Chad Todd and Laura Hunter,
MCSA/MCSE: Exam 70-291: Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Windows
Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training System, p. 62

QUESTION 6:

DRAG DROP
You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional.
You have installed a new server named Certkingdom -SR06 on the network. The
relevant portion of the network is shown on the exhibit.

You want to configure Certkingdom -SR06 with a valid static IP configuration.
Certkingdom -SR06 must be able to communicate with all hosts on the network and
on the internet. You also need to configure Certkingdom -SR06 to use the DNS server
on the local subnet for name resolution. In addition, you must configure redundancy
for name resolution.
How should you configure Certkingdom -SR06?
To answer drag the appropriate IP addresses and Subnet masks to the appropriate
places.

Answer:

Explaination:
The Class C address 192.168.0.100 has to be the IP address to enable
Certkingdom -SR06 to communicate with all hosts on the network and on the internet
as 192.168.0.1, 192.168.0.2 and 192.168.0.110 are already in use. 192.168.5.2 and
192.168.5.100 are on the wrong subnet, and besides, 192.168.5.12 is already in use.
The subnet mask for this Class C address is 255.255.255.0. The default gateway
should be 192.168.0.1. To configure redundancy for name resolution, configure the
preferred DNS server/primary address as 192.168.0.2, and the alternate DNS
server/secondary address as 192.168.5.2.
Reference:
J. C. Mackin, Ian McLean, MCSA/MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (exam 70-291):
Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network
Infrastructure, Part 1, Chapter 2, pp. 80-116

QUESTION 7:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. Certkingdom.com has its headquarters in
Chicago and branch offices in Dallas and Miami. You work in the Miami branch
office.
The Miami branch office has a file server named Certkingdom -SR25 that hosts
critical documents. Certkingdom -SR25 is configured with a DHCP client reservation.
Certkingdom.com users from all three offices download documents from
Certkingdom -SR25.
One day Certkingdom.com users complain that they cannot access the documents on
Certkingdom -SR25. You discover that the DHCP server has failed. The DHCP server
is located at headquarters.
You have received instruction from the CIO to ensure that Certkingdom -SR25 is
available even if it is unable to obtain or renew a lease from the DHCP server.
How could you accomplish this task?

A. On the DHCP server, increase the DHCP lease period.
B. Configure alternate IP settings for Certkingdom -SR25 on the Alternate Configuration
tab of the Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) properties.
C. Configure the DHCP scope in the 169.254.0.1. – 169.254.255.254 range.
D. On the DHCP server, configure the DHCP 001 Resource Location Servers reservation
option for Certkingdom -SR25.

Answer: B

Explaination: Windows Server 2003 includes the Alternate Configuration feature.
The Windows Server 2003 servers can be configured to use an alternate static IP
configuration if a DHCP server is unavailable. When a DHCP client determines that
the DHCP server is unavailable, it will automatically change over and also configure
the TCP/IP stack with the static address information specified on the Alternate
Configuration tab of the Internet Protocol (TCP/IP) properties.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Increasing the lease period would result in DHCP clients requesting leases less
frequently, but won’t guarantee that Certkingdom -SR25 will be available when the DHCP
server is down.
C: Modifying the DHCP scope to the 169.254.0.1. – 169.254.255.254 range will still be
reliant on the DHCP server.
D: Configuring the DHCP 001 Resource Location Servers reservation option for
Certkingdom -SR25 on the DHCP server will not ensure that Certkingdom -SR25 will
receive an IP address or have the IP address renewed.
Reference:
J. C. Mackin, Ian McLean, MCSA/MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (exam 70-291):
Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network
Infrastructure, Part 1, Chapter 2, pp. 114, 117

QUESTION 8:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. The Certkingdom.com network contains a
server named Certkingdom -SR34. Certkingdom -SR34 is configured as a DHCP server
and has been authorized in Active Directory. The Telnet service has been installed
and started on Certkingdom -SR34.
One day Certkingdom.com users complain that they cannot access network resources.
Your investigations reveal that the DHCP Server service on Certkingdom -SR34 has
stopped. You install the administrative tools on a client computer named
Certkingdom -WS291 and log on to the computer. When you open the DHCP console
on Certkingdom -WS291 and attempt to connect to Certkingdom -SR34, you receive an
error message that states: “Cannot find the DHCP Server.” You then attempt to
ping Certkingdom -SR34 but fail.
How can you connect to the DHCP Server service on Certkingdom -SR34 by using the
DHCP console on Certkingdom -WS291?

A. Establish a Telnet session to Certkingdom -SR34 and then run the net start dhcp
command.
B. Establish a Telnet session to Certkingdom -SR34 and then run the net start dhcpserver
command.
C. Establish a Telnet session to Certkingdom -SR34 and then run the ipconfig /renew
command.
D. On Certkingdom -WS291, run the netsh dhcp server\\ Certkingdom -SR34 show server
command.

Answer: B

Explaination: You can start the DHCP Server service by executing the Net Start
Dhcpserver command at the command prompt.
Telnet is a protocol that enables an Internet user to log on to and enter commands on a
remote computer linked to the Internet, as if the user were using a text-based terminal
directly attached to that computer. Telnet is part of the TCP/IP suite of protocols. The
term telnet also refers to the software (client or server component) that implements this
protocol.
Given the fact that you can ping Certkingdom -SR34 you should then establish a Telnet
session to Certkingdom -SR34 and then run the appropriate command.
Reference:
J. C. Mackin & Ian McLean, MCSA/MCSE self-paced training kit (exam 70-291):
implementing, managing, and maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network
infrastructure, Microsoft Press, Redmond, 2004, p. 7-23

QUESTION 9:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. The Certkingdom.com network contains a
server named Certkingdom -SR51 that is configured as a print server for a print
device that has a built-in network interface. The print device is used by the Sales
department to print Sales reports.
A Certkingdom.com user named Clive Allen is a member of the Sales department. Clive
Allen complains that he cannot print to the print device attached to
Certkingdom -SR51.
You verify that the IP address for Certkingdom -SR51 is correct and that the correct
drivers for the print device are installed. You now want to verify that the print jobs
are being sent to the correct MAC address for Certkingdom -SR51.
You log on to Certkingdom -SR51. What should you do next?

A. Run the net session command.
B. Run the netstat command.
C. Run the netsh command.
D. Run the netcap command.

Answer: D

Explaination: Netstcap.exe is a command line tool that could be used to capture the
network traffic. A filter can be created to be used during the capture to determine the
MAC address the print jobs are being sent to. The Network Monitor Capture Utility (
Netcap.exe) can be used to capture network traffic in Network Monitor. Netcap provides
capture abilities only from a command prompt; to open the resulting capture (.cap) files,
you must use the full Network Monitor interface. Netcap is installed when you install the
Support tools that are on the Windows XP CD-ROM. Netcap provides capture abilities
that are similar to the version of Network Monitor that is included with the Windows
Server products; however, you must use Netcap at a command prompt. Netcap installs
the Network Monitor driver and binds it to all adapters when you first run the Netcap
command.
Incorrect Options:
A: The net session command can be used to view the computer names and user names of users
on a server, to see if users have files open, and to see how long each user’s session has
been idle. Net session manages server computer connections – used without parameters,
net session displays information about all sessions with the local computer.
B: The netstat command is not a utility to use when troubleshooting NetBIOS names, but
is used to show what ports your computer is listening on.: -R is used to reload your
LMHOSTS file located in %systemroot%\system32\drivers\etc., -r will show you which
name resolutions have been answered via broadcasts, and which have been answered via
a NetBIOS name server, -RR switch of the command utility refreshes your NetBIOS
name with a configured WINS server.
C: The Network Shell utility (Netsh.exe) can perform a wide range of system
configuration tasks. You can use commands in the Netsh Interface IP context to
configure the TCP/IP protocol (including addresses, default gateways, DNS servers, and
WINS servers) and to display configuration and statistical information.
Reference:
Microsoft Knowledge Base: 306794: How to Install the Support Tools from the Windows
XP CD-ROM Network Monitor is provided with Windows Server products and
Microsoft Systems Management Server (SMS). Microsoft Corporation, 2004
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, Chad Todd & Laura Hunter,
MCSA/MCSE: Exam 70-291: Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Windows
Server 2003 Network Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training System, pp. 686, 854-856,
926

QUESTION 10:

Network Topology Exhibit:

LAN Settings Exhibit:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. The Certkingdom.com network contains a
Microsoft Internet Security and Acceleration (ISA) Server computer named
Certkingdom -SR01, a DNS server named Certkingdom -SR02, a DHCP server named
Certkingdom -SR03, a file server named Certkingdom -SR21, and a Web server named
Certkingdom-SR25. Certkingdom -SR25 also serves as a central antivirus server.
Certkingdom -SR21 is located on the 10.10.11.0 subnet and Certkingdom -SR25 is
located in the perimeter network. Certkingdom -SR21 contains antivirus software
that checks for new virus definitions on Certkingdom -SR25 every hour. You can also
access Certkingdom -SR25 through a virus update Web page to perform manual
virus definition updates.
Certkingdom -SR03 suffers a catastrophic failure and is removed from the network.
Due to budgetary constraints, a replacement for Certkingdom -SR03 will only be
acquired in the next financial year. You need to redesign network addressing
scheme, and change the IP addresses for Certkingdom -SR01 to the addresses shown
in the Network Topology exhibit.
Certkingdom -SR02 contains the new host (A) resource records for
Certkingdom -SR01.
You receive reports about a new virus threat and want to protect the network
immediately by manually downloading the new virus definitions to
Certkingdom -SR21. you log on to Certkingdom -SR21 but discover that you cannot
access the virus update Web page on Certkingdom -SR25. The static TCP/IP
configuration on Certkingdom -SR21 uses Certkingdom -SR02 as the preferred DNS
server.
You confirm that Certkingdom -SR01 is configured properly. On Certkingdom -SR21,
you view the Internet Explorer LAN settings that are shown in the LAN Settings
exhibit.
What should you do to allow Certkingdom -SR21 to connect to Certkingdom -SR25?

A. At a command prompt on Certkingdom -SR21, run the ipconfig /flushdns command.
B. In the LAN settings of Internet Explorer on Certkingdom -SR21, select the
Automatically detect settings check box.
C. At a command prompt on Certkingdom -SR01, run the ipconfig / flushdns command.
D. At a command prompt on Certkingdom -SR01, run the ipconfig /registerdns command.

Answer: A

Explaination: Running the ipconfig /flushdns command will flush and reset the DNS
resolver cache which is necessary to allow connection. Run this command on
Certkingdom -SR21 to connect to Certkingdom -SR25.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Selecting the “Automatically detect settings” checkbox is not going to allow
Certkingdom -SR21 to connect to WWW.
C: The ipconfig /flushdns command flushes and resets the DNS resolver cache. This is
not what is necessary.
D: The ipconfig /registerdns command refreshes all DHCP leases and registers any related
DNS names. This option is available only on Windows 2000 and newer computers that
run the DHCP Client service. This is not going to allow Certkingdom -SR21 to connect to
WWW when it is run on Certkingdom -SR01.
Reference:
James Chellis, Paul Robichaux and Matthew Sheltz, MCSA/MCSE: Windows Server
2003 Network Infrastructure Implementation, Management, and Maintenance Study
Guide, p. 311

QUESTION 11:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. The Certkingdom.com network contains a
DHCP server named Certkingdom -SR15 that is configured with a single scope.
Certkingdom.com hires a new Sales manager named Andy Reid. You install a new client
computer named Certkingdom -WS291 for Andy Reid. You connect
Certkingdom -WS291 to the network by plugging the network cable into the network
adapter on Certkingdom -WS291 and attempt to connect to Certkingdom -SR25.
However, you cannot access any of the servers on the network. When you open a
command prompt on Certkingdom -WS291 and run the ipconfig /renew command,
you receive the following response.

You log on to a client computer named Certkingdom -WS292 and run the ipconfig
/renew command successfully.
What should you do to ensure that Certkingdom -WS291 can receive its IP address
configuration from the Certkingdom -SR25?

A. Restart the DHCP service on Certkingdom -SR25.
B. Restart Certkingdom -WS291.
C. Restart Certkingdom -SR25.
D. Add additional IP addresses to the scope on Certkingdom -SR25.

Answer: B

Explaination: It is probable that the TCP/IP stack has a problem because the
computer is unable to send a DHCP discover broadcast packet. This can happen
when you insert a network cable after the PC has been started. You should restart
the client PC to successfully obtain a new IP address.
Incorrect Answers:
A, C, D: This is unnecessary because Certkingdom -WS292 did obtain an IP address from
the DHCP server, thus indicating that the DHCP server configuration is not the issue.
Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder and Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, MCSA/MCSE Exam 70-290:
Managing and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Environment Study Guide & DVD
Training System, p. 629

QUESTION 12:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows XP Professional. Certkingdom.com has its headquarters in
Chicago and branch offices in Dallas and Miami. The Certkingdom.com network
contains a DHCP server named Certkingdom -SR01. The relevant portion of the
network is shown in the following network diagram.

You work at headquarters. A Certkingdom.com employee named Andy Booth is one of
three employees that are relocated to headquarters from the Dallas office. Andy
Booth uses a portable client computer named Certkingdom -WS291. Andy Booth
complains that when he plugs Certkingdom -WS291 into the LAN connection in his
new cubicle, he cannot connect to network resources on the LAN or the Internet.
None of the other employees are experiencing the same problem.
When you run the ipconfig command from a command prompt on
Certkingdom -WS291, you see the output as shown in the exhibit.

What should you do to allow Certkingdom -WS291 to connect to network resources
on the LAN or the Internet?

A. Configure Certkingdom -WS291 with a subnet mask of 255.255.240.0.
B. Configure Certkingdom -WS291 with a default gateway of 192.168.3.12.
C. Configure Certkingdom -WS291 with a primary DNS suffix of Certkingdom.com
D. Configure Certkingdom -WS291 to automatically lease an IP address from
Certkingdom -SR01.

Answer: D

Explaination: The client computers on the subnet use DHCP to obtain their IP
configurations. Certkingdom -WS291 has a static IP address, and therefore cannot
obtain a valid IP configuration from the DHCP server.
Incorrect Answers:
A: By changing the subnet mask you will not ensure that Certkingdom -WS291 will
connect to other computers and the Internet.
B: Changing the default gateway will not enable Certkingdom -WS291 LAN connection.
Besides, 192.168.3.12 is the IP address of the DHCP server.
C: Adding a primary DNS suffix means that only domain names listed in that window
will be tried for resolution purposes. Both the connection-specific and primary DNS
suffix are ignored.
Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, Chad Todd and Laura Hunter,
Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Network
Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training System, p. 515

QUESTION 13:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows 2000 Professional. Certkingdom.com has headquarters in
London and branch offices in Paris, Berlin, Milan, Madrid, Stockholm, Warsaw,
Minsk, and Athens. Each branch office has a server that provides DHCP Server
services and between two to twenty client computers. A client computer in each
branch office is configured with a shared dial-up connection. You work at
headquarters.
The Berlin branch office has only two client computers named Certkingdom -WS291
and Certkingdom -WS292. A Certkingdom.com user named Kara Lang works in the
Berlin office. One morning Kara Lang complains that the shared dial-up connection
on Certkingdom -WS291 is no longer working.
Your investigation reveals that Certkingdom -WS292 can connect to shared folders
on Certkingdom -WS291 and that Certkingdom -WS291 can connect to the network at
headquarters. However, Certkingdom -WS292 cannot connect to resources on the
network at headquarters.
What should you do to ensure that both Certkingdom -WS291 and
Certkingdom -WS292 can connect to resources on the network at headquarters?

A. Reconfigure Internet Connection Sharing on Certkingdom -WS291.
B. Configure the shared dial-up connection on Certkingdom -WS291 so that automatic
dialog is enabled.
C. Configure Certkingdom -WS292 to receive an IP lease from a DHCP server.
D. Configure Certkingdom -WS292 to use Certkingdom -WS291 for DNS name resolution.

Answer: C.

Explaination: The problem is most likely caused by an incorrect or non-existent
default gateway setting on Certkingdom -WS292. If you configure
Certkingdom -WS292 to use DHCP to obtain IP addressing information,
Certkingdom -WS292 will receive the correct settings from the ICS service on
Certkingdom -WS291.
Incorrect Answers:
A: The question refers to a shared dial-up connection on Certkingdom -WS291 not
working. If the dial-up connection is shared, then Internet Connection Sharing is enabled
already.
B: The question states that Certkingdom -WS291 automatically connects to the network at
the main office whenever the user on Certkingdom -WS291 attempts to access resources
located on the main office network. This indicates that automatic dial-up is already
configured.
D: Certkingdom -WS291 is not a DNS server. The ICS service has a DNS proxy that
would pass DNS requests to whichever DNS server Certkingdom -WS291 is using.
Reference:
J. C. Mackin, Ian McLean, MCSA/MCSE Self-Paced Training Kit (exam 70-291):
Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Microsoft Windows Server 2003 network
Infrastructure, Part 1, Chapters 1 & 2, pp. 45, 124

QUESTION 14:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and all client
computers run Windows NT Workstation 4.0. The network contains 2,500 client
computers that are configured with static IP addresses.
Certkingdom.com issues a new network policy that requires all network computers to
have dynamically assigned IP configurations. You enable the DHCP Server service
on a member server named Certkingdom -SR25. Three network support technicians
have been instructed to configure the IP properties on all client computers to
receive a DHCP lease from Certkingdom -SR25.
It is estimated that the change over will take two weeks to complete. You need to
ensure that the DHCP server will not lease an IP address that is statically
configured on a computer that the network support technicians have not yet seen to.
What should you do?

A. On Certkingdom -SR25, configure Conflict detection attempts to 1.
B. On Certkingdom -SR25, configure Conflict detection attempts to 3.
C. On Certkingdom -SR25, configure client reservations for each client computer’s MAC
address.
D. On Certkingdom -SR25, activate and reconcile the scopes.

Answer: A

Explaination: When conflict detection attempts are set, the DHCP server uses the
Packet Internet Groper (ping) process to test available scope IP addresses before
including these addresses in DHCP lease offers to clients. A successful ping means
that the IP address is in use on the network. This results in the DHCP server not
offering to lease the address to a client.
If the ping request fails and times out, it indicates that the IP address is not in use on the
network. In this case, the DHCP server offers to lease the address to a client. Each
additional conflict detection attempt delays the DHCP server response by a second while
waiting for the ping request to time out. This in turn increases the load on the server. A
value of no greater than two (2) is recommended for ping attempts.
Incorrect Answers:
B: Due to the latency involved in ping attempts, the higher the conflict detection value is
set, the longer the lease process will be for every client that uses the DHCP server.
C: Configuring client reservations for each client computer MAC address will involve a
physical visit to each and every client computer if you do not ping it successfully.
D: The scope would already be activated in this scenario.
Reference:
Deborah Littlejohn Shinder, Dr. Thomas W. Shinder, Chad Todd and Laura Hunter,
Implementing, Managing, and Maintaining a Windows Server 2003 Network
Infrastructure Guide & DVD Training System, pp. 208-209

QUESTION 15:

You work as the network administrator at Certkingdom.com The Certkingdom.com
network consists of a single Active Directory domain named Certkingdom.com All
servers on the Certkingdom.com network run Windows Server 2003 and client
computers run Windows XP Professional, Windows 2000 Professional, or Windows
NT Workstation. All client computers are configured with default settings.
The Certkingdom.com network contains a server named Certkingdom -SR31 that
functions as a DHCP and DNS server, and a server named Certkingdom -SR38 that
contains antivirus server software. All DNS zones on Certkingdom -SR31 are enabled
for DNS dynamic updates. The computer account for each client computer is the
owner of its own DNS host record. No other server provides DNS services.
What must you do to ensure that Certkingdom -SR38 can contact client computers by
using fully qualified domain names (FQDNs) to propagate virus definition updates?

A. On Certkingdom -SR31, modify the Dynamically update DNS A and PTR records only
if requested by the DHCP clients option.
B. On Certkingdom -SR38, modify the Always dynamically update DNS A and PTR
records option.
C. On Certkingdom -SR31, modify the Discard A and PTR records when lease is deleted
option.
D. On Certkingdom -SR31, modify the Dynamically update DNS A and PTR records for
DHCP clients that do not request dynamic updates (for example, clients running
Windows NT 4.0) option.

Answer: D

Explaination: Dynamically Update DNS A And PTR Records For DHCP Clients That
Do Not Request
Updates – This checkbox lets you handle these older clients graciously by making the
updates using a separate mechanism. When checking this check box you will ensure that
Certkingdom -SR38can resolve FQDNs for all client computers on the network under the
given circumstances and the role that Certkingdom -SR31 plays.
Incorrect Answers:
A: Dynamically Update DNS A And PTR Records Only If Requested By The DHCP
Clients – This radio button (which is on by default) tells the DHCP server to register the
update only if the DHCP client asks for DNS registration. When this button is active,
DHCP clients that aren’t hip to DDNS won’t have their DNS records updated. However,
Windows 2000, XP, and Server 2003 DHCP clients are smart enough to ask for the
updates.
B: Always Dynamically Update DNS A And PTR Records – This radio button forces the
DHCP server to register any client to which it issues a lease. This setting may add DNS
registrations for DHCP-enabled devices that don’t really need them, like printer servers;
however, it allows other clients (like Mac OS, Windows NT, and Linux machines) to
have their DNS information automatically updated. This is not what is required.
C: Discard A And PTR Records When Lease Is Deleted – When a DHCP lease expires,
what should happen to the DNS registration? Obviously, it would be nice if the DNS
record associated with a lease vanished when the lease expired; when this checkbox is
checked (as it is by default), that’s exactly what happens. If you uncheck this box, your
DNS will contain entries for expired leases that are no longer valid; when a particular IP
address is reissued on a new lease, the DNS will be updated, but in between leases you’ll
have incorrect data in your DNS-always something to avoid.
Reference:
James Chellis, Paul Robichaux and Matthew Sheltz, MCSA/MCSE: Windows Server
2003 Network Infrastructure Implementation, Management, and Maintenance Study
Guide, p. 246

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Users must be alert about having their real identity from Google+ replace pseudonyms in other Google services

Google’s work to integrate its Google+ social networking site broadly with its other services could raise red flags for users who want to closely guard their privacy.

It’s valid to raise concerns over Google’s decision to integrate Google+, which carries a real-name requirement for users, with other Google services people have been using with pseudonyms for years, said John Verdi, senior counsel with the Electronic Privacy Information Center, in a phone interview.

Google’s nightmare scenario would be for a critical mass of users to inadvertently green-light Google+ integrations only to later complain that they didn’t know their pseudonyms in certain services would be replaced by their Google+ real name.

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If that were to happen, Google could find itself in a privacy controversy that it can ill afford. The U.S. government has the company on a short leash, having mandated audits of its privacy policies and practices for the next 20 years after a privacy firestorm ignited with the launch of the now-closed Buzz service last year.

Buzz, a microblogging and social networking service, debuted with an integration with the Gmail webmail service that exposed users’ private e-mail contacts publicly and without authorization.

Since launching Google+ this summer, Google officials have been stressing that it makes it simple and intuitive for members to control what they share, with whom and how.

During this initial period, when Google+ has operated mostly as a stand-alone social networking site, consensus has been that, yes, its content sharing and privacy controls work well and as advertised.

However, Google has now started to integrate Google+ with other services, and it remains to be seen whether a critical mass of users will fully understand the interaction, cross-functionality and data sharing between Google+ and other Google services.

Google officials, from the CEO on down, are gung-ho about Google+ and it’s clear that the push to fuse Google+ with other company services will be extensive.

Google has redesigned the interface of the Google Account control panel, whose previous version clearly listed Google services available to users as part of the account, along with links to the services and some of their settings pages. The new control panel lacks that list of services.

Previously found at google.com/accounts, the control panel is now part of the Google+ site domain, another sign that Google+ is becoming the command center for privacy controls and settings across Google services. The new control panel includes a link to the old control panel, but it’s not clear for how long the latter will be available.

The road to propagate Google+ across the Google product line is just starting, and the potential for a misstep at some point seems high, considering that at issue is the online identity of potentially hundreds of millions of people.

In some cases, shielding their real identity is of life-and-death importance for some people, such as spousal abuse victims and political dissidents in totalitarian regimes.

“If Google wants to be the broker in the relationship between pseudonyms and real names, there will be all sorts of ways that that could go wrong across their many services. If you’re a user in Syria depending on your pseudonymity in order to stay alive, that’s not a very comforting situation,” said Peter Eckersley, technology projects director at the Electronic Frontier Foundation, via e-mail.

In other words, now more than ever, Google must make sure that it fully complies its famous “do not be evil” philosophy.

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Google (NSDQ:GOOG) and Microsoft (NSDQ:MSFT) are likely helping finance rival bids to acquire Yahoo (NSDQ:YHOO), with mountains of cash as likely a motive as competitive reasons, The Wall Street Journal reported on Monday.

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Google has talked to at least two private equity firms about the possibility of financing bids to acquire Yahoo, the Journal reported.

The word of the potential deal comes less than a month after it was reported that Microsoft may be looking for a partner to bid on Yahoo.

The possibility of both Google and Microsoft financing rival bids for Yahoo makes a powerful statement about the future of the Internet and search engines.

Yahoo and Microsoft in 2009 agreed to work together in the online search and advertisement business, with Microsoft’s Bing search engine powering Yahoo’s search capabilities and Yahoo becoming the exclusive worldwide relationship sales force for both companies’ premium search advertisers.

A successful bid by a Microsoft-backed private equity firm could help cement that company’s relationship with Yahoo.

At the same time, Google is Yahoo’s top rival in the online search engine business, an important business because searches help drive a large portion of internet advertising dollars. If Google were to back a successful bid for Yahoo, it could help prevent Microsoft from capitalizing on its Yahoo relationship.

The Journal, citing two unnamed sources, wrote that Google is in talks with two private equity firms about the possibility of financing a bid for Yahoo.

Such a move, however, would come under strong antitrust scrutiny, especially since an agreement between the two regarding an advertising partnership was scuttled by the U.S. government in 2008.

Google and Microsoft may be looking to finance bids for Yahoo for reasons other than competitive drivers. The Journal, in a separate report, wrote that Google has about $42.6 billion in cash, while Microsoft has about $57.4 billion in cash. For both companies, the bulk of that cash is overseas, and could be put to better use as a loan to private equity firms than leaving it in the bank, the Journal wrote.

Yahoo’s share prices rose 3.7 percent to $16.71 on the news of the rival bids.

Google did not respond to a request for further information.

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Microsoft has finally forked a way to kill its smaller rival, Linux from the PC / desktop segment. Since most PCs are only designed to run Windows, and Windows 8 would be the obvious choice in the future, there is something we need to worry about.

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With Windows 8, Microsoft would set certain guidelines to OEMs and PC manufacturers. All Windows 8 machines will need to be have the Unified Extensible Firmware Interface (UEFI) instead of the venerable BIOS firmware layer. BIOS has been pretty much the sole firmware interface for PCs for a long time.

The EFI system has slowly been making headway in recent years, and right now EFI firmware is compatible with Windows supporting the GUID Partition Table (GPT), OS X/Intel, and Linux 2.6 and beyond machines. EFI is seen as a better hardware/software interface than BIOS, since it is platform-agnostic, runs in 32- or 64-bit mode, and GPT machines can handle boot partitions of up to 9.4 zettabytes. (That’s 9.5 billion terabytes.)

Linux supports UEFI, thats is not a problem. The problem is Microsoft‘s other requirement for any Windows 8-certified client: the system must support secure booting. This hardened boot means that “all firmware and software in the boot process must be signed by a trusted Certificate Authority (CA)”.

By locking, Microsoft intends to prevent injection of malware onto Windows PCs, which looks like a justified claim. Linux bootloaders are EFI-ready but none of them are signed, hence they would just not work on PCs.

Bootloader Unlocking?

So what, we would Unlock the bootloader, like we did on Android phones and iPhone. No, it won’t be that easy. If all parts of the chain need to have a CA signature, then swapping out a machine’s signed EFI layer with, say, an unsigned BIOS or EFI would not work. Matthew Garrett from Redhat notes:

“Microsoft requires that machines conforming to the Windows 8 logo program and running a client version of Windows 8 ship with secure boot enabled. The two alternatives here are for Windows to be signed with a Microsoft key and for the public part of that key to be included with all systems, or alternatively for each OEM to include their own key and sign the pre-installed versions of Windows. The second approach would make it impossible to run boxed copies of Windows on Windows logo hardware, and also impossible to install new versions of Windows unless your OEM provided a new signed copy. The former seems more likely.”

So what about Signing Linux Bootloader Distros?

“Firstly, we’d need a non-GPL bootloader. Grub 2 is released under the GPLv3, which explicitly requires that we provide the signing keys. Grub is under GPLv2 which lacks the explicit requirement for keys, but it could be argued that the requirement for the scripts used to control compilation includes that. It’s a grey area, and exploiting it would be a pretty good show of bad faith. Secondly, in the near future the design of the kernel will mean that the kernel itself is part of the bootloader. This means that kernels will also have to be signed. Making it impossible for users or developers to build their own kernels is not practical. Finally, if we self-sign, it’s still necessary to get our keys included by ever OEM.”

What can be done?

We jsut have to rely on Manufacturers & OEMs so that they would include an option in their UEFI firmware to disable the secure booting feature.

Microsoft has finally found a way to tackle Linux, and someone out there has to make the extra effort to save it from the vicious Monopoly!

Update: Microsoft finally clarifies, it could be disabled via BIOS.

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The Asia-Pacific region effectively ran out of IPv4 addresses on Friday, meaning that the region is now conserving addresses for the IPv4-to-IPv6 transition.

The region officially moved into its planned “Phase Three” of the transition, where new and existing members will have restricted access to the existing IPv4 addresses used by most PCs today. All new and existing APNIC members will be entitled to a maximum delegation of a “/22″, or (1,024 addresses) of IPv4 space, the Asia Pacific Network Information Centre said.

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APNIC is the first regional Internet registry to exhaust its IPv4 address space, which experts have warned about for some time. When the available IPv4 addresses are exhausted, new devices coming onto the network, from phones to network switches, must be assigned an IPv6 address unless some intermediary technology is used.

“Considering the ongoing demand for IP addresses, this date effectively represents IPv4 exhaustion for many of the current operators in the Asia Pacific region,” said Paul Wilson, director general of APNIC, in a statement. “From this day onwards, IPv6 is mandatory for building new Internet networks and services.”

Current IP addresses use the IPv4 format, which assigns users an IP address using four numbers, each from 1 to 256. (8.8.8.8 is an available DNS server IP address administered by Google, for example.) Addresses like pcmag.com are translated behind the scenes into their numeric equivalents, just like 800-DOMINOS equates to an actual phone number. Each new device that connects to the Internet is assigned a new IP address, although home networks can assign their own non-unique IPs via network address translation, or NAT.

While the IPv4-to IPv6 shift will be a worry for networking vendors, ISPs, and domain-name registrars, the transition shouldn’t be as much of a concern for ordinary consumers, networking vendors told PCMag.com. ISPs like Comcast can also run in dual-stack mode, internally translating addresses from IPv4 to IPv6.

“You can certainly run dual-stack in the routers to serve both types of packets,” said Vint Cerf, the so-called “father of the Internet” and a chief Internet evangelist for Google, in an interview earlier this year. “You can certainly run dual-stack at edge devices, if the device has been provided with both address types. The IPv4 address might be a NAT assignment using so-call ‘private IP address space.’

“Eventually there will be no more IPv4 ‘public address space,’” he continued. “When that exhaustion occurs (and it won’t happen in a uniform way—some places will run out before others), then there will be some devices that only have IPv6 assignments. They will not be able to directly interact with IPV4-only devices.”

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Adobe said Friday that it has identified and issued a patch for Adobe Flash Player, just days after issuing a similar patch.

Adobe issued Adobe Flash Player 10.2.159.1 on Friday, for users of Flash version 10.2.153.1, and Adobe Flash Player 10.2.154.25 for those that use Chrome. Adobe also said it recommends users of Adobe AIR 2.6.19120 and earlier versions for Windows, Macintosh and Linux update to Adobe AIR 2.6.19140.

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Adobe expects to make available an update for Adobe Flash Player 10.2.156.12 and earlier versions for Android no later than the week of April 25, 2011, the company added.

Why? According to Adobe, there have been reports that this vulnerability is being exploited in the wild in targeted attacks via a malicious Web page, or a Flash (.swf) file embedded in a Microsoft Word (.doc) or Microsoft Excel (.xls) file delivered as an email attachment, targeting the Windows platform. The updates resolve a memory corruption vulnerability that could lead to code execution, Adobe said.

That’s basically the same vector that a previous vulnerability exploited on Wednesday.. Adobe said then that it was not aware of PDF-related attacks in Reader or Acrobat, and Adobe Reader X Protected Mode mitigations would prevent that type of exploit from happening.

As PCMag’s Larry Seltzer points out, this type of vulernability might sound familiar. It’s quite similar to another Flash zero-day from several weeks ago that was embedded in an Excel file and used to attack RSA.

Adobe Reader 9.x for UNIX, Adobe Reader for Android, and Adobe Reader and Acrobat 8.x are not affected by this issue, Seltzer noted.

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When a group of developers broke off from Oracle last year to establish the Document Foundation and create the new LibreOffice open-source office suite, it was unclear what would become of the well-known OpenOffice.org project they left behind. Today, Oracle has announced that it will no longer offer a commercial version of the OpenOffice.org software, and that it plans to move the suite to a purely community-based open source project.

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In a statement, Oracle Chief Corporate Architect Edward Screven said, “Given the breadth of interest in free personal productivity applications and the rapid evolution of personal computing technologies, we believe the OpenOffice.org project would be best managed by an organization focused on serving that broad constituency on a non-commercial basis. We intend to begin working immediately with community members to further the continued success of Open Office. Oracle will continue to strongly support the adoption of open standards-based document formats, such as the Open Document Format (ODF).”

“Oracle has a long history of investing in the development and support of open source products,” Screven continued. “We will continue to make large investments in open source technologies that are strategic to our customers including Linux and MySQL. Oracle is focused on Linux and MySQL because both of these products have won broad based adoption among commercial and government customers.”

Oracle provided no additional information about OpenOffice.org, or its own proprietary Web-based office suite, Oracle Cloud Office, which also supports ODF.

The LibreOffice developers released their first stable version of that software earlier this year.

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Its not about winning or losing, we are happy to start seeing some competition to industry’s most popular Tablet device: Apple iPad.

As illustrated in the video, there are things that iPad would do better than Windows 7 tablet, and vice versa.

Watch the Handson Comparison video for most daily use-cases:

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Web Browsing: Windows 7 Tablet might be slightly faster at this but layout, screen size-wise, it fails to showcase its appeal.

OnScreen Keyboard: The on-screen keyboards are great, iPad definitely has a better one.

Flash, youtube: Windows runs native Flash in browsers and iPad relies on native youtube app to achieve the same. Other flash sites, just wont work. However, unofficial iPad Flash [Frash] should nail down to stability and support.

Screen: Windows 7 Tablets will feature different screens, varied by the vendor that manufactures it. But iPad already features best in class IPS display.

Email & apps: As you can see from the video above, Windows 7 tablet seriously lacks on user usability. Its not easy when it comes to touching small areas which were originally meant be used with mouse cursor.

Connectivity: Windows 7 Tablets have its edge over here as it provide all kinds of standard PC connectivity ports: USB, SDcard and what not.

Battery: Mileage may vary but, iPad gives a bare minimum of 10hours, which is atleast 2x times better than any Windows 7 Tablet device that will be coming anytime soon. This is one of the reasons why HP windows 7 Slate was dropped.

Multitouch: Nobody, I said nobody can beat apple in this. They are the mastters of multitouch gesture smoothness, google might be approaching them, but Apple is far more superior at this.

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